Originally Posted by Doomsday
It's funny how you conveniently avoid my response, but heres some more shit in your eye:
False. Slavery hasn't ceased in ANY first-world countries. As I stated, it's changed it's form, but the end result is identical as I illustrated in my prior post in this thread.
What's there to explain? You're not asking anything and haven't posted any inquiries. You started the thread, made a closed-ended statement and that was it. What is there to explain? I thought we went over this in my last post here.
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